Teruma #3- One Mishkan

In this week’s Parsha Hashem commands Bnei Yisroel to build the Mishkan.

Why does the Torah tell us that the Mishkan is to be “one”?

 The Ibn Ezra states that just as the Shulchan needs every section in order to be complete, so too Hashem’s world needs every component in order to be complete. All of Hashem’s creations that were listed in Breishit contribute to the makeup of the world. Each creation is significant in its own way. Without each creation the world would not be complete.

What are other reasons that the Torah tells us that the mishkan must be “one”?  What are other meanings of this commandment?Why is this significant?

Teruma #2- who should build?

Parshat Terumah goes into extensive detail of the construction of the Mishkan. The parsha covers many components of the parsha, one of which is the Aron Hakodesh, otherwise known as the Holy Ark.

In this Parsha, Hashem's commandment to Moshe to build the Aron differs from his command to design the other components of the Mishkan. For the other parts of the holy Mishkan, Hashem commanded Moshe, "You should build...", which take note, is singular. Then when Hashem commands the Aron to be built, He says, "They should build the Aron", which is plural!

Why did the command change? Why this difference?!   

The Midrash Rabbah on Shemot explains that when Hashem commanded, "They should build the Aron", it was a specific commandment from Hashem that every single Jew had to personally contribute to the building of the Aron( so that they could all merit the Torah), unlike the rest of the components of the Mishkan.

Teruma #1- Heavy Lifting or Not So Much?

In this weeks parsha, Parshat Termuah, the building of the Mishkan is described. 

In Perek 25: 11: the Torah says, "וְצִפִּיתָ אֹתוֹ זָהָב טָהוֹר מִבַּיִת וּמִחוּץ תְּצַפֶּנּוּ"

This translates to "And you shall cover it with pure gold on the inside and on the outside you shall cover it".

Talmud Bavli 72B says that Betzalel, the architect of the Mishkan, was to make 3 arks, one of gold for the inside, one of gold for the outside and one made of wood in the middle. The question is raised of the wooden, inner ark, why not just make it gold? The Mishkan is a very holy place, surely expense was no issue, so why "downsize" the center ark and make it out of wood?

The Daat Zekenim answers that had the ark been made of 100% gold it would have been too heavy to carry. 

From here we can learn an important lesson about God's consideration of Bnei Yisrael in the Midbar. The ark carried the broken remains of the shattered tablets, the ultimate sign of Bnei Yisrael's rebellion against God. By making transporting these symbolic remains easier for Bnei Yisrael, Hashem was essentially making a concession despite their egregious sin, demonstrating His mercy and glory in a tangible way.  

Q1) Why else was the center ark wooden? 

Q2) Where else do we see this idea of Hashem making concessions for Bnei Yisrael?

Q3) Is there any other significance to the particular materials used in the Mishkan?

Mishpatim #4- milk and meat

Do not cook a kid in its mother’s milk.-Exodus 23:19

In Parshat Mishmatim, the law of having meat and milk together is proclaimed. Shaloh

says that meat represents the “divine attribute of justice” and milk as “the attribute of mercy”,

therefore they shall not mix. Rabbeinu Bachayei says that when Mashiach comes we can eat

milk and meat together. If it is going to be allowed after Mashiach is here, then why can’t we

eat milk and meat together now?

Mishpatim #4- set them free

In Parashat Mishpatim 21:2 the Torah states:

“If you buy a Hebrew slave, he shall work for six years, and on the seventh he shall be free and clear.”

In 6:13 in the Torah it is stated that Hashem commanded Moshe and Aaron to go to the Jewish people. The Yerushalmi (Rosh Hoshana 3:5) asks: What did Hashem command them?

Apparently, there was a specific Mitzvah explained at the time of Yitziat Mitzraim and this was the emancipation of Hebrew slaves. There is proof in Yirmiyahu as is quoted that Hashem commanded the Jewish people to send their Hebrew slaves free at the end of seven years. (34:13)

Question:We only find Mitzvot that were given before Matan Torah to be mentioned if they were relevant at that time. The emancipation of slaves however would not apply until the Jews inhabited israel. Why then is it singled out to be given before the rest of the Torah?

Rabbi Chaim Shmulevitz explains that it goes against human nature to send one’s slave free. A person becomes used to the role of a master and even if the slave wants freedom the master may not grant freedom. Therefore, the Torah wanted the Jewish people to be introduced to this commandment at the time they were being liberated from slavery and while they were experiencing the overwhelming joy of freedom. The occasion of Yetziat Mitzrayim was a time to be remembered by the Jewish nation forever, therefore, the commandment of emancipation of slaves was given earlier, as well in this weeks parsha, to prove the violation is inexcusable.

Shabbat Shalom!

Mishpatim #3- Why pierce his ear?

. וְהִגִּישׁוֹ אֲדֹנָיו אֶל הָאֱלֹהִים וְהִגִּישׁוֹ אֶל הַדֶּלֶת אוֹ אֶל הַמְּזוּזָה וְרָצַע אֲדֹנָיו אֶת אָזְנוֹ בַּמַּרְצֵעַ וַעֲבָדוֹ לְעֹלָם: his master shall bring him to the judges, and he shall bring him to the door or to the doorpost, and his master shall bore his ear with an awl, and he shall serve him forever.

Why do we bore his ear? Why that part of the body? 

Rashi says, the ear heard on Har Sinai "Do not steal" and yet this person went and stole (which is why he's becoming a slave) therefore, it makes sense to bore (make a hole) in his ear as opposed to another body part.

 What are other reasons for boring the ear as opposed to other body parts? Why does this need to be done by a door post? How do they know which ear to bore?

Mishpatim #2- capital punishment?

יב. מַכֵּה אִישׁ וָמֵת מוֹת יוּמָת: One who strikes a man so that he dies shall surely be put to death.

In this weeks Parsha Beni Yisroal are at Har Sinai and Moshe is telling them more laws that they need to follow. One law that Moshe says is "One who strikes a man so that he dies shall surely be put to death"  Rashi asks what if he didn't strike a man what if he struck a woman or a child would he get killed?  Rashi then quotes a different passuk to prove that even if he killed an woman or a child he would get killed. In Vayikra it says that if a man strikes "any human being he will be put to death" which includes woman and children. In Vayikra it does not mention that the person has to die. Therefor you might think that any blow can subject you to the death penalty.  Therefor the passuk in Mishpatim comes to tell us in order to be liable for the death penalty the victim must die. Do you think it is fair to say that if you kill someone you should be killed or is it to harsh of a punishment? Why would the Torah not have one passuk for this law? Meaning why doesn't the Torah just combine the pissukim and say One who strikes any human being so that he dies should surely be put to death?